First, some context:
This occurred to me while I was learning how to do order reduction for $2^{nd}$ order ODEs of the form $F(y, y', y'') = 0$.
Apparently, I'm supposed to set $p = y'$, say that $y'' = p_x = p_y * y' = p_y * p$ (according to the chain rule), and then solve $F(y, p, p_y * p) = 0$, which is now a $1^{st}$ order ODE.
However, I have to ask: What is $p$? My first instinct would be to say that it is a function of $x$. But here it is being treated as a function of $y$ (unless there is some variation to the chain rule I'm unaware of).
So this leads me to believe that $p$, and by extension $y'$, are functions of $y$. But why? We can't necessarily solve the original equation to prove that it is the case - so how can we prove it?
Unless $y$ is a constant, $y'=p$ is a function of $x$. Consequently, there is a functional relation between $p$ and $y$ (via $y=f(x)\leftrightarrow x=f^{-1}(y)$).
E.g. $y=e^x\to p=e^x=y$.