I have been asked to prove the following:
For n ≥ 4, n$^2$ ≤ 2$^n$
I will argue by induction the statement P(k): for n ≥ 4, n$^2$ ≤ 2$^n$.
First, consider the base case P(4) = 16 ≤ 16 which is true, so we assume P(n) holds and consider P(n+1).
2$^{n+1}$ = 2$^n$2
We know that 2$^n$2 ≥ 2$^n$ and from our induction hypothesis we also know that n$^2$ ≤ 2$^n$, so we know that 2$^n$2 ≥ 2$^n$ ≥ n$^2$.
This is the part that makes me a bit uncomfortable and I think is wrong:
(n+1)$^2$ ≥ 2$^n$ by our induction hypothesis and definition of inequality.
Then, also by definition of inequality:
2$^n$2 ≥ (n+1)$^2$ ≥ 2$^n$ ≥ n$^2$
Thus, we have completed our induction step and shown that 2$^{n+1}$ ≥ (n+1)$^2$.
I am worried about my jump that (n+1)$^2$ ≥ 2$^n$. Do I need to some kind of subproof here to prove this relation? Any help would be appreciated!
Observe the following:
$$\begin{align} n\geq 4&\implies n^2\geq 4n\\ &\implies n^2\geq 2n+2n\\ &\implies n^2> 2n+1. \end{align}$$ $P(n)$ is assumed to be true and so, $$2^n\geq n^2$$ and so multiplying by $2$ to both sides, we get $$2^{n+1}\geq 2n^2.$$ Thus, if $n\geq 4$ we get
$$\begin{align} 2^{n+1}&\geq 2n^2\\ &=n^2+n^2\\ &>n^2+(2n+1)\\ &=(n+1)^2 \end{align}$$ This means that $P(n+1)$ is also true.