$$ \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin^4x dx \le \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin^3xdx$$
I have tried to define 2 functions $ f, g:[0, \frac{\pi}{2}] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and say that $ f(x) = \sin^4x$ and $ g = \sin^3x$. After that, $ f(\frac{\pi}{2}) < g(0)$ since the greatest value of f should smaller than the smallest value that g can take in order for $f(x) < g(x)$. I thought that if the function $ f $ is less than or equal to the function $ g $, then this will be valid for the integrals of these 2 functions.
But $ f(\frac{\pi}{2}) = sin^4\frac{\pi}{2} = 1 $ and $g(0) = sin^30 = 0 $ and 1 is not less or equal to 0.
Where am I wrong?
You thought that a necessary condition is $f(x) \leq g(y), \, \forall x,y \in [0,\pi/2]$. It is only sufficient. The condition $f(x) < g(x)$ means, that $f(a) < g(a), \, \forall a \in D$. $D$ is the domain of definition of $f$ and $g$.