$a_n=(1+\frac{1}{n})^n$ ,
$b_n=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{k!}$.
Show that $b_n-\frac{3}{2n} < a_n < b_n$.
From the binomial theorem we have
$$\begin{align} \left(1+\frac1n \right)^n &=\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}\frac{1}{n^k}\\\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots (n-k+1)}{n^k}\frac{1}{k!}\\\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^n \left(\left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)\left(1-\frac{2}{n}\right)\left(1-\frac{3}{n}\right)\cdots \left(1-\frac{k-1}{n}\right)\right)\frac{1}{k!}\\\\ &\le \sum_{k=0}^n\frac{1}{k!}\\\\ \end{align}$$
since all of the terms $\left(1-\frac{j}{n}\right)<1$.
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From the binomial theorem we have
$$\begin{align} \left(1+\frac1n \right)^n &=\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}\frac{1}{n^k}\\\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots (n-k+1)}{n^k}\frac{1}{k!}\\\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^n \left(\left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)\left(1-\frac{2}{n}\right)\left(1-\frac{3}{n}\right)\cdots \left(1-\frac{k-1}{n}\right)\right)\frac{1}{k!}\\\\ &\le \sum_{k=0}^n\frac{1}{k!}\\\\ \end{align}$$
since all of the terms $\left(1-\frac{j}{n}\right)<1$.