Let $A$ a ring, $B$ a $A$-algebra, $I=\ker (B\otimes_A B \to B)$ given by multiplication, i wanna see why is $$d:B \to I/I^2$$ $$b \mapsto b\otimes 1 -1 \otimes b$$ well defined (in fact, why mod $I^2$), and an $A$-derivation? Thanks
2026-04-04 13:48:00.1775310480
Prove this morphism is a derivation
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