Let $a_n$ be a sequence such that for every $n$: $a_n\le\frac{1}{2}(a_{n-1}+a_{n-2})$.
Prove that $a_n$ either converges to a real number $L$ or diverges to $-\infty$ $(L\in[-\infty,\infty))$.
I tried assuming it didn't diverge to $-\infty$ in order to show that in that case it must converge to a real number. I tried showing so by cauchy's convergence definition but I failed.
Any ideas?
So we have that $$a_3\leq \frac{1}{2}(a_{2}+a_{1})$$ $$a_4\leq \frac{1}{2}(a_{3}+a_{2})\leq 3a_2/4+a_1/4$$ $$a_5\leq \frac{1}{2}(a_4+a_3)\leq 7a_2/8+5a_1/8$$ $$\cdots$$ $$a_{n}\leq \frac{2n-5}{2^{n-2}}a_2+\frac{2n-7}{2^{n-2}}a_1.$$ If the sequence is not convergent to a real number $L$ then $a_n\to \infty$ or $a_n\to-\infty.$ However $$a_n\leq \frac{4n-12}{2^{n-2}}\max\{a_1,a_2\}$$ and so $a_n\to -\infty.$