Can someone help how to prove by epsilon notation $\lim_{n\to\infty} n\sin\frac {1}{n}=1$ ?
2026-04-03 13:41:53.1775223713
On
Prove using epsilon notation that $\lim_{n\to\infty} n\sin\frac {1}{n}=1$
144 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
There are 2 best solutions below
0
On
You can rewrite your limit as $$ \lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}. $$ At this point, notice that $\sin(x)=x+O(x^2)$ (see, for example, here). This means that, if you fix $\varepsilon>0$, then you can find $\delta=\delta(\varepsilon)>0$ such that $$ |x|<\delta \implies \sin(x) \in [x(1-\varepsilon),x(1+\varepsilon)]. $$ This implies that $$ |x|<\delta \implies \frac{\sin(x)}{x} \in [1-\varepsilon,1+\varepsilon]. $$ Therefore your limit is $1$.
You need to know that for any $x> 0$, $$x-\frac{x^3}6<\sin x<x\qquad\text{(this is easy to prove)}.$$ Setting $x=\dfrac1n$, we obtain: $$1-\frac1{6n^2}<n\sin \frac1n<1,$$ whence $$0<1-n\sin \frac1n<\frac1{6n^2}, \quad\text{so that}\quad\Bigl\lvert1-n\sin \frac1n\Bigr\rvert<\varepsilon\quad\text{if}\quad n>\frac1{\sqrt{6\varepsilon}}.$$
Proving the double inequality:
It is a consequence of Leibniz's theorem on alternating series, but it can be made an exercise for high school, based on the following corollary of the Mean value theorem:
Apply the corollary to $\;\sin x< x\;$ for $x>0$. You obtain successively