$$ X_{t}=e^{W_{t}}-\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{t} e^{W_{s}} \mathrm{d} s $$ for every $t \geq 0 .$ Here $\left(W_{t}\right)_{t \geq 0}$ is a (1-dim) Brownian motion and we let $\mathcal{F}:=\left(\mathcal{F}_{t}\right)_{t \geq 0}$ be the filtration generated by it.
How would I go about proving that this is a Martingale; either using the definition of a martingale or using Ito. This is a revision question for a exam I have coming up but I've forgotten\don't understand how to deal with the exponential and integral. Any help would be appreciated.
Indeed, you can use either Ito or the definition.