I have proved it for all functions of the form $f(x) = x^{a}, \forall a, x,$ but I am not sure if it is true for all functions.
Proposition
$$xf(x) - \int_{0}^{x} f(t) \,dt = \int_{f(0)}^{f(x)} g(t) \,dt, g(x) = f^{-1}(x), \forall f(x)$$
Proof
Let $f(x) = x^{a}, a \neq -1$, then:
$f(x)x = x^{a + 1}$,
$F(x) = \frac{1}{a + 1} x^{a + 1}$,
$F(0) = 0$, and
$f(x)x - \int_{0}^{x} f(t) \,dt = \color{lime}{\frac{a}{a + 1} x^{a + 1}}$.
Since $f(x) = x^{a}, g(x) = x^{\frac{1}{a}}$,
$G(x) = \frac{a}{a + 1} x^{\frac{a + 1}{a}}$,
$G(f(x)) = \frac{a}{a + 1} x^{a + 1}$,
$G(f(0)) = 0$, and
$G(f(x)) - G(f(0)) = \color{lime}{\frac{a}{a + 1} x^{a + 1}}$.
Let $f(x) = x^{a}, a = -1$, then:
$f(x)x = 1$,
$F(x) = \ln|x|$,
$F(0) = -\infty$, and
$f(x)x - \int_{0}^{x} f(t) \,dt = \color{lime}{\infty}$.
Since $f(x) = x^{a}, g(x) = x^{a}$,
$G(x) = \ln|x|$,
$G(f(x)) = -\ln|x|$,
$G(f(0)) = -\infty$, and
$G(f(x)) - G(f(0)) = \color{lime}{\infty}$.
I believe that there may be a few exceptions to this, but I am not sure.
I am not sure as to whether or not this formula has been derived / used before.
If you would like to see how I derived it, please, ask me!
You can use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (Leibniz's Rule) to show that the derivatives of the LHS and RHS wrt $x$ are identical ($=xf'(x)$).
Which means that LHS = RHS $+ c$.
All you need to do now is to show $c=0$ and that's trivial by taking $x=0$.