Let f be a growing(increasing) function:$$f : (0,+\infty)\rightarrow(0,+\infty)$$
Prove that, if $$\lim_{t\to\infty}\frac{f(2t)}{f(t)}=1$$
then $$\lim_{t\to\infty}\frac{f(a\cdot t)}{f(t)}=1 ,\forall a\in \mathbb{R},a\geq1$$
I thought about what kind of a function it could be, but it just seems too general to prove this way. I assume if it should be a polynomial function, it would have to be a constant,but then again there is no reason to believe it's a polynomial function. But if I can't make a general outlook of the function I'm not quite certain how to even begin solving this.$\\$
I should prove this without using derivations/integrals. Hints would be appreciated.
Thanks in advance!
First, show that:
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(2nx)}{f(x)} = 1$$
for each integer $n \ge 1$. One way to do this is by induction. Hint: note that
$$\frac{f(2(n+1)x)}{f(x)} = \frac{f(2(n+1) x)}{f(2nx)} \times \frac{f(2nx)}{f(x)}$$
now for $a \ge 1$, use the squeeze theorem:
$$1 \le \frac{f(at)}{f(t)} \le \frac{f(2(\lfloor a \rfloor +1)t)}{f(t)}$$