So the linear map I'm talking about is defined as follows:
$l_1: P_1(\mathbb{R}) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2, l_1(p):= \begin{pmatrix}\int_{0}^{1} p(x) dx\\2p(1) \end{pmatrix}$
My approach is this:
For injectivity:
Let $p,q \in P_1(\mathbb{R})\,\, p(x):= ax+b ; \,\, q(x) = cx+d$ Now assume that $l_1(p) = l_1(q)$
Show that this possible if and only if $p = q \Rightarrow a=c \land b=d$
$l_1(p) = \begin{pmatrix}\frac{a}{2}+b\\2a+2b \end{pmatrix}$
$l_1(q) = \begin{pmatrix}\frac{c}{2}+d\\2c+2d \end{pmatrix}$
Because of my assumption from the beginning I can now write:
$\begin{pmatrix}\frac{a}{2}+b\\2a+2b \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}\frac{c}{2}+d\\2c+2d \end{pmatrix} $
Two vectors are equal if their components in the same row are equal i.e.:
$\frac{a}{2}+b = \frac{c}{2}+d$ and $2a+2b = 2c+2d$
But now I'm struggling how to show that this means that a = c and b = d and therefore p = q or the opposite that $p \neq q$
Note: $P_1(\mathbb{R})$ denotes the set of all polynomials with degree 1 which take reals as inputs.
You second equation implies $a+b = c+d$, which is equivalent to $\frac{a}{2}+b+\frac{a}{2} = \frac{c}{2}+d+\frac{c}{2}$. By the first equation, this gets you $a = c$ and hence also $b = d$.
By the way, since you have a linear map, it actually suffices to check that only $0$ is mapped to $0$, which would make the computation a little easier.