Given $$ I_n = \int \:e^{ax}\cos^n x\;dx $$
I have to prove that $$ \left(a^2+n^2\right)I_n\:=\:e^{ax}\cos^{n-1}x\left(a\cos x+n\sin x\right)+n(n-1)I_{n-2} $$
I just cannot get it to reduce. I keep ending up with too many species in the next integral to use parts again.
I have an important Further Pure F3 exam in a month and reduction is proving the hardest of the topics. Help is greatly appreciated.
Outline: Suppose that $n\ge 2$. We use integration by parts, as in your attempt, letting $u=\cos^n x$ and $dv=e^{ax}\,dx$. Then we get $du =-n\sin x\cos^{n-1}x\,dx$ and $v=\frac{1}{a}e^{ax}$.
So it remains to compute $\int \frac{n}{a}e^{ax}\sin x\cos^{n-1} x\,dx$.
Do it again, letting $u=\cos^{n-1} x\sin x$ and $dv=\frac{n}{a}e^{ax}\,dx$. Then $du=\left(\cos^n x -(n-1)\sin^2 x\cos^{n-2} x\right)\,dx$.
Now comes a key step: Replace $\sin^2 x$ by $1-\cos^2 x$. Thus $$du=\left(n\cos^{n} x -(n-1)\cos^{n-2}x\right)\,dx.$$