The problem is:
Let $f ∈ C(\mathbb R)$. Prove that the sequence $\{f_n\}^∞_{n=1}$ defined by
$f_n(x)=\frac{1}{n}\sum^{n-1}_{k=0}f(x+\frac{k}{n})$
converges uniformly on each finite interval $[a, b]$.
How would you prove this? I'm not that good at analysis so any hints or advice would be great. I was thinking maybe comparing sequences and using triangle inequality? However, the summation is really throwing me off.
This is a Riemann sum so $$f_n(x) \to g(x) = \int_{x}^{x+1} f(t)\;dt .$$
For showing uniform convergence, note that $$ |f_n(x)-g(x)| = \left|\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{1}{n}f(x+k/n)-\int_{x+k/n}^{x+(k+1)/n}f(t)\;dt\right|\\\le \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \left|f(x+k/n) -f(x+k/n+c_k^*)\right|$$ where for each $k,$ $c^*_k \in [0,1/n]$ (by the triangle inequality and mean value theorem). Since $f$ is continuous on $[a,b+1],$ it is uniformly continuous on this interval, so for sufficiently large $n,$ we have $$ |f_n(x)-g(x)| \le \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \epsilon = \epsilon$$ for all $x\in [a,b].$