Let $\{a_k\}$ be a sequence of non-zero real numbers and suppose that
$$p = \lim_{k \to \infty} k\left(1-\frac{|a_{k+1}|}{|a_k|}\right)\quad\text{exists}$$
Prove that $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}a_k$ converges absolutely when $p > 1$.
I've tried manipulating the equation to isolate $\frac{|a_{k+1}|}{|a_k|}$ and use the Ratio Test. But it doesn't seem to work because then $\lim_{k \to \infty} \frac{|a_{k+1}|}{|a_k|} = 1$, and the Ratio Test is inconclusive.
Probably some other Test (like the Logarithmic Test?) needs to be used but I'm unsure how.
Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks.
Suppose $\,1<p\,\Longrightarrow \exists\,\epsilon>0\,\,s.t.\,\,q:=p-\epsilon>1$ . For all but a finite number of indexes $\,k\,$ we have
$$k\left(1-\frac{|a_{k+1}|}{|a_k|}\right)>q\Longrightarrow \frac{|a_{k+1}|}{|a_k|}<1-\frac{q}{k}\leq \left(1-\frac{1}{k}\right)^q $$
where the last inequality follows from Bernoulli's Inequality
But then
$$\frac{|a_{k+1}|}{|a_k|}\leq\frac{(k-1)^q}{k^q}=\frac{\frac{1}{k^q}}{\frac{1}{(k-1)^q}}=\frac{b_{k+1}}{b_k}$$
and since
$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{1}{k^q}$$
converges the so does our series by the second comparison test (theorem 6.1, page 60, in the book "Sequences and series" in this place)