Came across this question in an optimization course:
Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be convex, and let $A\in\mathbb{R}^{m\times{n}}$. Consider:
$$h(y) = \inf_{Ax=y}{\{f(x)}\}$$
Prove that $h$ is convex.
Any help? It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum. I believe the direction should be something like: Assume $x_0\in\mathbb{R}^n$ is the $x$ for which $h(y_0)=f(x_0)$. Thus,
$$h(y_0)=f(x_0)\leq{f(x_0+z)}$$
for any $z$ that holds $Az=0$.
From here, I'm not sure how to continue...
Let $\epsilon>0$ be arbitrary and assume that $$ u = \alpha v + (1-\alpha)w,\quad \alpha\in(0,1), \;u,v,w\in\mathbb{R}^m. $$ Assume $A^{-1}(v)=\{x|Ax = v\}$ is not empty. By the assumption, we can find $x$ such that $Ax = v$ and $$ h(v) \leq f(x)\leq h(v)+\epsilon. $$ Also assume that $A^{-1}(w)$ is not empty and find $x'$ such that $$ h(w)\leq f(x')\leq h(w)+\epsilon. $$ Now, note that $\alpha x+(1-\alpha)x' \in A^{-1}(u)$. Therefore, it holds that $$ h(u) \leq f(\alpha x+(1-\alpha)x') \leq \alpha f(x) +(1-\alpha)f(x')\leq \alpha h(v)+(1-\alpha)h(w) +\epsilon. $$ Since $\epsilon>0$ was arbitrary, we get $$h(u) \leq \alpha h(v)+(1-\alpha)h(w) , $$as desired.
If $A^{-1}(v)$ is empty, according to the definition, we have $$ h(v) = \inf_{x\in A^{-1}(v)} f(x) = \inf \varnothing = \infty. $$ Hence if one of the sets $A^{-1}(v)$ or $A^{-1}(w)$ is empty, then $$ h(u) \leq \alpha h(v)+(1-\alpha)h(w)=\infty $$ is obvious. (But it is desirable to assume that $A :\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^m$ is surjective.)