How would you go about proving that $$\gcd \left(\frac{a}{\gcd (a,b)},\frac{b}{\gcd (a,b)}\right)=1$$
for any two integers $a$ and $b$?
Intuitively it is true because when you divide $a$ and $b$ by $\gcd(a,b)$ you cancel out any common factors between them resulting in them becoming coprime. However, how would you prove this rigorously and mathematically?
Very simply it can be done like this: $\gcd(a,b)=d$.
Now we ask can: $\gcd(\frac{a}{d},\frac{b}{d})=e$ for $e>1$?
Well, this implies $e\mid\frac{a}{d},e\mid\frac{b}{d} \Rightarrow em=\frac{a}{d}, en=\frac{b}{d} \Rightarrow dem=a,den=b \Rightarrow de$ is a common divisor of $a,b$ which is greater than $d$, thus a contradiction as $d$ by definition was supposed as the $\gcd$. Hence, $e=1$.