Lang wrote in page 627, Algebra, proof of Corollary, that the isomoprhism
$L(R,R) \otimes L(R,R) \rightarrow L(R \otimes R, R \otimes R)$
is clear. Where given $R$-modules $E,F$, $L(E,F)$ is the set of $R$-module homomorphisms. What I did was
$R \otimes R \cong R$ given by $\pi: x \otimes y \mapsto xy$, inverse by $i: x \mapsto x \otimes 1$. Given $f \in RHS$,$$f \mapsto (\pi \circ f \circ i ) \otimes id $$
Conversely, a map from LHS to RHS is given by $f \otimes g \mapsto T(f,g)$ where $$T(f,g): x \otimes y \mapsto f(x) \otimes g(y)$$
The map are inverses. $$f \mapsto T( (\pi \circ f \circ i), id ) : x \otimes y \mapsto (\pi \circ f \circ i)(x) \otimes y= f(x \otimes y)$$ $$f \otimes g \mapsto (\pi \circ T(f,g) \circ i) \otimes id = f \otimes g$$
Last equality holds as $$ (\pi \circ T(f,g) \circ i) \equiv \alpha_f \alpha_g \, id $$ which holds because $f \equiv \alpha_f \, id$, $g \equiv \alpha_g \, id $
It took me some playing to figure out the first map from RHS to LHS. Is there are higher perspective which explains this map?
It's even simpler than that. There is an isomorphism $L(R,R) \cong R$ given by $f \mapsto f(1)$. Its inverse is $x \mapsto f_x$ where $f_x(y) = xy$. Since Therefore $L(R,R) \otimes_R L(R,R) \cong R \otimes_R R \cong R$.