I was going through the derivation of Poisson distribution in probability. And I stuck with following step:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\left(1-\frac{m}{n}\right)^{n}}{\left(1-\frac{m}{n}\right)^{r}} = e^{-m}$$ Can anyone explain the actual way to prove the above expression?
Consider $$A=\left(1-\frac{m}{n}\right)^{n-r}\implies \log(A)=(n-r)\log\left(1-\frac{m}{n}\right)$$ Using Taylor series $$\log(A)=(n-r)\left(-\frac{m}{n}-\frac{m^2}{2 n^2}+O\left(\frac{1}{n^3}\right)\right)$$ Expand $$\log(A)=-m-\frac{m (m-2 r)}{2 n}+O\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)$$ $$A=e^{\log(A)}=e^{-m}\left(1-\frac{m (m-2 r)}{2 n}\right)+O\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)$$