I'm looking at a proof in a textbook that shows that $ \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{x} $ does not exist. This is a paraphrase of the proof:
So, we want to show that there exists an $\epsilon>0$, such that for each $\delta >0$, there is some $x \in \mathbb{R}-{0}$, such that $|x-0| < \delta$, but $|\frac{1}{x}-L|\geq \epsilon.$ There are three cases, depending upon whether $L > 0$, $L = 0$, or $L < 0$. Suppose $L>0$. Then we have $\frac{1}{x} - L\geq \epsilon$, which is the same as $\frac{1}{x} \geq L + \epsilon$, and so we need $x \leq \frac{1}{L+\epsilon}$. Since $L >0$, the last step works with any choice of $\epsilon$. We also need to have $|x-0| < \delta$, and so we will choose $x = min\left\{\frac{\delta}{2},\frac{1}{L+\epsilon}\right\}$. We will not give the full details of the cases where $L < 0$ and where $L = 0$, except to note that when $L < 0$ we need to choose some $\epsilon > 0$ so that $L+ \epsilon < 0$, for example we could choose $\epsilon = \frac{|L|}{2}$.
For the life of me I can't understand why for the case of $L<0$, we must have $L+\epsilon <0$. I've tried playing around with the inequality and plugging in real numbers, and nothing is clicking. I'm sure it's something simple, but I just can't see it. Please know that I have looked at other proofs for this specific limit (or lack thereof) on here, and it still doesn't make sense.
This is the proof they did for $L>0$: Suppose that $\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{1}{x} = L$ for some $L \in \mathbb{R}.$ Let $\epsilon = \frac{|L|}{2}$ if $L \neq 0$, and let $\epsilon = 1$ if $L = 0.$ We consider the case when L > 0; the other cases are similar,and the details are left to the reader. Let $\delta > 0.$ Because $L > 0$, then $L+\epsilon > 0$. Let $x = min\left\{\frac{\delta}{2},\frac{1}{L+\epsilon}\right\}.$ Then $x \in (0,\infty)$ and $|x-0| \leq \frac{\delta}{2} < \delta.$ On the other hand, because $x\leq \frac{1}{L+\epsilon}$, it follows that $L + \epsilon \leq \frac{1}{x}$, and hence $\frac{1}{x} - L \geq \epsilon.$
Okay, so this makes sense to me. But could anyone help me with the proof for the case of $L<0$. I know there are probably better ways, but I want to understand within the context of the book. This is not homework, but self-study.
Thank you!
The proof in your book seems to be unnecessarily complicated: as $x \to 0$, $|\frac{1}{x}|$ increases without bound, so $\frac{1}{x}$ cannot have a limit in $\Bbb{R}$.
You can extract an $\varepsilon$-$\delta$ proof from the above. Given any $L \in \Bbb{R}$, if $\epsilon = 1$ and $\delta = \frac{1}{|L| + 1}$, then $|\frac{1}{x} - L| > \epsilon$ for all $x$ with $-\delta < x < \delta$. This means that $\frac{1}{x} \not\to L$ as $x \to 0$