In Spivak's Calculus, he asks for a proof that $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=\lim_{h\to 0}f(a+h)$.
He first shows that the existence of $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)$ implies the existence and equivalence of $\lim_{h\to0}f(a+h)$, and then he says the argument for the other direction is "similar," but I am having a hard time replicating it (I may be getting unnecessarily bogged down in notational issues). His proof of the first direction is essentially as follows:
(Spivak forward direction): Let $\ell=\lim_{x\to a}f(x)$ and define $g(h)=f(a+h)$. Then for every $\epsilon>0$ there is a $\delta>0$ such that, for all $x$, if $0<|x-a|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-\ell|<\epsilon$. Now, if $0<|h|<\delta$, then $0<|(a+h)-a|<\delta$, so $|f(a+h)-\ell|<\epsilon$, which we can write as $|g(h)-\ell|<\epsilon$. Thus, $\lim_{h\to0}g(h)=\ell$, which can also be written $\lim_{h\to 0}f(a+h)=\ell$.
The same sort of argument shows that if $\lim_{h\to 0}f(a+h)=m$, then $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=m$. So either limit exists if the other does, and in this case they are equal.
My attempt at other direction: Let $m=\lim_{h\to 0}f(a+h)$. Then for every $\epsilon>0$ there is a $\delta>0$ for all $h$ such that if $0<|h|<\delta$ then $|f(a+h)-m|<\epsilon$. Now, if $0<|x-a|<\delta$, then $|f(a+(x-a))-m|=|f(x)-m|<\epsilon$. Thus, $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=m$.
What am I missing here? Is my proof okay? Why does Spivak use the function $g$ in the previous direction? Is it really necessary? What would such a $g$ be in the other direction?