Proving or disproving: $\frac{O(f(n))}{O(g(n))}=\frac{\Omega(f(n))}{\Omega(g(n))}$

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Let $f,g$ be positive functions. Prove or disprove: $$ \frac{O(f(n))}{O(g(n))}=\frac{\Omega(f(n))}{\Omega(g(n))} $$ I can't seem to figure out this statement. I could not think of an example that disproves it. I also could not find a way to prove it. How should I solve it?

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Big O's on the LHS can be arbitrarily small. Big Omega's on the RHS can be arbitrarily big. It is easy to construct counterexamples following this logic.