I am wondering if $|a| > |b|$ implies $|\frac{b+b^{2}}{a+a^{2}}| < 1$, where $a$ and $b$ are real numbers. I have tested numerically with many cases and I have found this to be true in all of my testing.
We know that $|\frac{b+b^{2}}{a+a^{2}}| < 1$ is equivalent to saying $|a + a^{2}| > |b + b^{2}|$, and I believe this to be always true if $|a| > |b|$, but I am not sure how I would prove this easily.
One might be able to do a proof by cases, by checking each case $a > 1, 1 \geq a > 0, 0 > a \geq -1, -1 > a$ with each case $b \geq 1, 1 > b \geq 0, 0 \geq b > -1, -1 \geq b$, but this is tedious and there is probably a more elegant way (Possibly using the triangle inequality in some way?).
I appreciate any response.
EDIT: I have asked another question directly related to this one here. Once again I would greatly appreciate responses to this question as well.
EDIT 2: I have asked a second question directly related to this one here. This one, we have the added restriction that $a > 0$. I would greatly appreciate responses to this question as well.

Counter-example: Take $$ a_n = -\frac{1}{n} $$ and $$ b_n = \frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n^{2}}. $$ Then for all $n$ one has $\lvert b_n \rvert < \lvert a_n\rvert$, but $$ \left\lvert \frac{b_n+b_n^2}{a_n+a_n^2} \right\rvert = \frac{\frac{1}{n} - \frac{2}{n^{3}} + o\left(\frac{1}{n^{3}}\right)}{\frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n^2}} = 1+\frac{1}{n} + o\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) > 1 $$ the inequality holding for $n$ big enough.