Question: Prove the function $f:[0,1] \to \mathbb R$ given by $f(x) = \begin{cases} 1, & \text{if $x=\frac{1}{n}$ for any positive integer $n$} \\ 0, & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$ is Riemann integrable.
My attempt:
To prove this, I need to show that there exists a partition $P$ such that the difference between the upper and lower Darboux sums (denoted $\mathcal U(P,f)$ and $\mathcal L(P,f)$ respectively) is less than any $\epsilon>0$.
I have the following formulae:
- $\mathcal U(P,f)=\sum^n_{i=1} M_i\Delta x_i$
- $\mathcal L(P,f)=\sum^n_{i=1} m_i\Delta x_i$
- $m_i= \inf\{f(x):x_{i-1} \le x \le x_i\}$
- $M_i=\sup\{f(x):x_{i-1} \le x \le x_i\}$
- $\Delta x_i= x_i - x_{i-1}$
However, to begin this computations I need a partition $P$. How should one go about determining this?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
pick arbitrary $x>0$ we know that there is $n \in \mathbb{N}$ s.t $\frac{1}{n}< x $ because $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} = 0$ . Now we know that there are atmost finite number of discontinuities on $[\frac{1}{n}, 1]$ hence your function is integrable on $[\frac{1}{n},1]$ Since this holds for arbitrary $x$ we can say that function is integrable on interval $[x,1]$ for any $x>0$.Hence it is Riemann Integrable on $[0,1]$ using following theorem.
infact you can calculate value integral of function by proving following
$$\int_{0}^1 f = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \int_{\frac{1}{k+1}}^{\frac{1}{k}} f = 0$$
can you prove the threorem and above statement?