I am learning proofs with $\mathbb N$ and have this proposition: Let $m \in\mathbb Z$. If $m \ne 0$, then $m^2 \in\mathbb N$. Previously, I have proven: For $m \in\mathbb Z$, one and only one of the following is true: $m \in\mathbb N$, $-m \in\mathbb N$, $m = 0$.
If $m \ne 0$, then there are two cases to prove:
Case 1: $m \in\mathbb N$ That's straightforward because the product of two natural numbers is a natural number
Case 2: $-m \in\mathbb N$:
\begin{align*} -m \cdot -m \in\mathbb N\\ (-1 \cdot -1) \cdot m \cdot m \in\mathbb N\\ m \cdot m \in\mathbb N\\ \end{align*}
What do you think?
If $m\in Z$,and if $m\ne0$, you've two cases.
Case 1: $m\in Z^+$ $$ => m^2 \in Z^+ => m^2 \in N$$ (Since multiplication within positive integers is closed, and results in a natural number always.)
Case 2: $m\in Z^-$ $$ => m^2 \in Z^+ => m^2 \in N$$ (Since multiplication within negative integers always results in a positive integer as you said by typing out the below :-)\begin{align*} -m \cdot -m \in\mathbb N\\ (-1 \cdot -1) \cdot m \cdot m \in\mathbb N\\ m \cdot m \in\mathbb N\\ \end{align*}
QED
Your proof is perfect (it's essentially the same as mine!); I'd just suggest you say that multiplication operation is closed for numbers picked from positive integers instead of 'That's straightforward because the product of two natural numbers is a natural number' (In case you want to use a bit of terminology).
Otherwise it's completely fine!