I'm having difficulty completing a proof of a statement (my attempt is written after the statement):
Given a monotonically increasing function $f:\mathbb R \rightarrow \mathbb R$, and a bounded set $A\subset \mathbb R$, I am trying to prove that
$\inf(f(A))=f(\inf(A))$
where the $f(A)$ is the set defined by $f(A)=\{f(a) : \,a\in A\}$.
I managed to prove that $\inf(f(A)) \geq f(\inf(A))$:
Let $a\in A$. Then by definition of $\inf$:
$$a\geq \inf(A)$$
Because $f$ is monotonically increasing, for any $a,b\in \mathbb R$ such that $a\geq b$, $f(a) \geq f(b)$.
So:
$$\forall a\in A\quad f(a)\geq f(\inf(A))$$
Which means that
$$\inf(f(A))\geq f(\inf(A))$$
I am struggling with showing the reverse inequality (or show a contradiction of the strong inequality). I tried using the definition of $\inf$ with $\epsilon$ but I didn't see anything that might help with the proof.
So, how might I prove the rest of the statement? (And is my proof correct, up till this point?)
I have searched around and haven't found something about the image of a set (mapped by a monotone function).
EDIT:
It seems that the statement isn't true (an answer gives a counterexample). So, I suppose if $f$ is continuous then it is true, but I haven't checked.
You can't prove it, because it is false. Take$$f(x)=\begin{cases}x&\text{ if }x>0\\x-1&\text{ otherwise}\end{cases}$$ and $A=(0,1)$. Then$$\inf f(A)=0\text{ and }f(\inf A)=-1.$$