I'm trying to prove that the sequence $\left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3},\frac{2}{3},\frac{1}{4},\frac{2}{4},\frac{3}{4},\frac{1}{5},\frac{2}{5},\frac{3}{5},\frac{4}{5},\cdots\right)$ is not a Cauchy sequence.
I know that a sequence of real numbers is not Cauchy if there exists an $\epsilon>0$ such that, for all $N\in\mathbb{N}$, there exists $m,n>N$ such that $|x_{m}-x_{n}|\geq\epsilon$. It intuitively makes sense to me that the sequence cannot be Cauchy, as the distance between points where the denominator changes (like $\cdots\frac{99}{101},\frac{100}{101},\frac{1}{102},\cdots$) keeps growing larger. However, I'm not sure how to find indices $m$ and $n$ in general with $|x_{m}-x_{n}|\geq\epsilon$. Thanks in advance for any help!
Let $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ be your sequence. Take $\varepsilon=\frac12$. Given $N\in\mathbb N$, take $n\geqslant N$ such that $a_n$ is of the form $\frac k{k+1}$ for some $k\in\mathbb N$ and let $m=n+1$. Then $a_m=\frac1{k+2}$. Therefore,$$\left\lvert a_m-a_n\right\rvert=\frac k{k+1}-\frac1{k+2}\geqslant\frac12=\varepsilon.$$
Or you can say that your sequence diverges, since the subsequence$$\frac12,\frac13,\frac14,\ldots$$converges to $0$, whereas the subsequence$$\frac12,\frac23,\frac34,\ldots$$converges to $1$. So, the sequence diverges and therefore it is not a Cauchy sequence.