Let $a_1,a_2,a_3,b_1,b_2,b_3\in \mathbb{R}$, $a_1,a_2,a_3>0$, $b_1<b_2<b_3$.
Prove that $\frac{a_1}{x-b_1}+\frac{a_2}{x-b_2}+\frac{a_3}{x-b_3} = 0$ has exactly two solutions in $\mathbb{R}$.
First, I showed that the solutions must be bounded in $[b_1,b_3]$.
Since there are 3 points that the function is undefined at, I couldn't use any theorem that requires the function to be continuous. I know that it's continuous between $(b_1,b_2)$ and $(b_2,b_3)$, so I was trying to use IVT, but it also didn't work.
Could you please give me a hint?
You need to use IVT in the two intervals $(b_1,b_2)$ and $(b_2, b_3)$ near the endpoints.
At $b_1^+$, $\frac{{a_1}}{x-b_1}+\frac{{a_2}}{x-b_2}+\frac{{a_3}}{x-b_3} \to \infty$.
That is because $\frac{{a_1}}{x-b_1}+\frac{{a_2}}{x-b_2}+\frac{{a_3}}{x-b_3}> \frac{{a_1}}{x-b_1}+\frac{{a_2}}{b-b_2}+\frac{{a_3}}{b-b_3} \to \infty$, where $b = \frac {b_1+b_2}2$.
Similarly at $b_2^-$, $\frac{{a_1}}{x-b_1}+\frac{{a_2}}{x-b_2}+\frac{{a_3}}{x-b_3} \to -\infty$.
By IVT, this shows that $\frac{{a_1}}{x-b_1}+\frac{{a_2}}{x-b_2}+\frac{{a_3}}{x-b_3} =0$ for some $x \in (b_1,b_2)$. The result for $(b_2, b_3)$ is similar.