In proving the set of automorphisms of a group $G$ is a group, I need to verify the existence of an identity element. I can manage to show that the identity map is an element of this group, but demonstrating that it performs the operation of an identity (which should be the easiest part) is confusing.
First, we take the map $e: G \to G$ defined by $x \mapsto x$. This map is surjective since for any $y \in G$, $\exists x = y$ such that $e(x) = y$. This map is injective since $e(x) = e(y)$ implies $x = y$ for any $x, y \in G$. Thus, $e$ is bijective. Since for any $x, y \in G$, we have \begin{align*} e(xy) = xy = e(x)e(y), \end{align*} $e$ possesses the homomorphism property. Thus, $e$ is an isomomorphism from $G$ to itself, and is hence an element of ${\rm Aut } G$.
The role that this map $e$ should play is that for any $f \in {\rm Aut }G$, we have \begin{align*} e \circ f = f \circ e = f. \end{align*} For the map $f: G \to G$, $x \mapsto y$, where $f \in {\rm Aut } G$, we have \begin{align*} (e \circ f)(x) &= e(f(x)) = e(y) = y \\ (f \circ e)(x) & = f(e(x)) = f(x) = y. \end{align*} Hence, $e \circ f = f \circ e$ since $x \in G$ was arbitrary.
Is this a valid proof? Have I missed anything?
Your proof is fine. I'd just suggest two modifications:
Hence, your equations become:
\begin{align*} (\operatorname{id_G}\circ f)(x) &= \operatorname{id_G}(f(x)) = f(x), \\ (f\circ \operatorname{id_G})(x) &= f(\operatorname{id_G}(x)) = f(x). \\ \end{align*}
Furthermore, in the conclusion you need $$ \operatorname{id_G}\circ f = f\circ\operatorname{id_G} = f. $$ You missed the last part.