consider the operator $*$ from $L^1(R^d) \to L^1(R^d)$ with
$$f*g = \int_{R^d}f(x-y)g(y)dy$$
I want to show this operation doesn't have an identity element, namely, there does not exist an element $I \in L^1(R^d)$ with $$f*I = f$$ I have argued as follows:
Assume there exists such an element, hence $$\int_{R^d}I(x-y)I(y)dy = I(x)$$ taking integral from both sides with respect to $x$ and using Fubini-Tonelli's theorem: $$\int_{R^d}I(x-y)dx\int_{R^d}I(y)dy = \int_{R^d}I(x)dx$$ using invariance properties of Lebesgue integral then yields: $$\int_{R^d}I(x)dx = 0 \ or \ 1$$ case1$\int_{R^d}I(x)dx = 0$: $$\int_{R^d}f(x-y)dx\int_{R^d}I(y)dy = \int_{R^d}f(x)dx$$ and this yields $\int_{R^d}f(x)dx = 0$ which is a contradiction since $f$ was arbitrary.
case2:$\int_{R^d}I(x)dx = 1$: $$\int_f(x-y)I(y)dy = \int_{R^d}f(x)I(y)dy$$ hence $$\int_{R^d}[f(x-y)-f(x)]I(y)dy = 0$$
And I'm stuck here. The best idea I have is to consider some $f$ and evaluate it at some point and get to a contradiction. Any ideas?
The Riemann-Lebesgue lemma implies that for $f\in L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)$ we have $$\lim_{\|\xi \|\to \infty }\hat{f}(\xi)=0$$ The Fourier transform of $g(x)=e^{-\|x\|^2}$ does not vanish. We have $$\widehat{f*g}=\hat{f}\,\widehat{g}$$ Assume by contradiction that $f*g=g.$ Then $\hat{f}=1,$ a contradiction.
The argument given in this post is more complicated in my opinion.