For every finite Schwartz function $f$ and every $t \in \mathbb{R}$, define the Dirac delta as
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty dt f(t) \delta(t-t') := f(t').$$
How do I proof with this definition that $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty d\omega e^{i\omega(t-t')} =2\pi \delta(t-t'). $$ When I use complex analysis, this gives me zero for all $t, t'$ since there are no poles and the contour, which clearly is wrong.
I would like to know this way of a proof to understand what the following integral is in distribution sense: $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty d\omega e^{i\omega(t-t')} |\omega|^{a}, $$ with real $a > 0$.
Given $t'$ for each $A$ let $$g_A(t)=\int_{-A}^A e^{i\omega(t-t')}d\omega = 2 \frac{\sin(A(t-t'))}{t-t'}$$ Then $\lim_{A\to \infty} g_A$ converges to $2\pi \delta(.-t')$ in the sense of tempered distributions.
To see this let $$h(t)=\int_{-\infty}^t \frac{2\sin(u)}{u}du$$ For any $\phi \in S(\Bbb{R})$ $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \phi(t) g_A(t)dt = -\int_{-\infty}^\infty \phi'(t+t') h(At)dt$$ $h(At)$ converges to $2\pi 1_{t >0}$ in $L^1_{loc}$ and uniformly away from $(-\epsilon,\epsilon)$ so $-\int_{-\infty}^\infty \phi'(t) h(At)dt$ converges to
$$-\int_{t'}^\infty 2\pi\phi'(t)= \phi(t')$$
Note that this is the proof of the Fourier inversion theorem at least for the Schwartz functions.