Let:
$$f: (x,y) \mapsto \frac{x^2y}{x^2+y^2}$$ and $\:f(0,0)=0$
It's partial derivatives are:
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} (x,y)=\frac{2xy^3}{(x^2+y^2)^2}$$
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} (x,y)=\frac{x^2(x^2+y^2)}{(x^2+y^2)^2}$$
How can I prove that is has partial derivatives at $0$ and calculate them? Would showing that $f$ is continues at $0$ and stating that the partial derivatives at $0$ are also null suffice? Or should I try showing that the partial derivatives are equal at $0$?
We have that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(0,0)=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x,0)-f(0,0)}{x}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{0-0}{x}=0$, and similarly for $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(0,0)$.