I have been trying to prove that the inverse of $2$ does not exist in integers, but I did not succeed.
I tried to assume negatively that is an integer, but I have refrained from moving on... I am not sure if I can divide because we live in the integers, etc...
I would be glad to have your help, thanks.
Let $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ s.t. $2k=1$ then, since $k$ is an integer, we have (integers are the free group over the element $1$) $k=\pm(1+1+...+1)$, where the 1 appears k times and $k\neq 0$. But $1=2k=k+k= \pm(1+1+1+1...+1)=1$. Now since there are at least two $1'$s involved in the second to last equation we get $1+1+...+1=0$ which is a contradiction to the assumption