I'm trying to prove that $(xyz)' = x'+y'+z'$ using theorems/axioms.
I tried this but I just want to make sure if its the correct route or if I've done something "illegal"/wrong.
(xyz)' = [(xy)z]' by associativity
= [(x*y)'+z'] by DeMorgan's Law
= [(x'+y') + z'] by DeMorgan's Law
= [(x'+z')+(y'+z')] by Distribution
= x'+y'+z' by simplifying redundant z' terms.
Is this the correct method?
I wouldn't say you did anything "illegal", but distribution is usually used in the following manner:
$\quad (x + y)z = xz + yz\quad $ or $\quad(xy)+ z = (x+z)(y+ z)$
or the "flip side"
$\quad x(y+z)=xy + xz \quad $ or $\quad x +(yz)=(x+ y)(x+z)$
Your work was done, essentially, when you after your second application of DeMorgan's. Then, we simply use associativity again:
$$[(x'+y') + z'] = x' + y' + z'\tag{by associativity}$$