I have tried this: http://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mathematics/18-01sc-single-variable-calculus-fall-2010/unit-2-applications-of-differentiation/part-a-approximation-and-curve-sketching/problem-set-3/ and checked my solution of the problem 2A-6.
In the solutions they solve it this way: $$\tan\theta=\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos\theta}\approx \frac{\theta}{1-\theta^2/2}$$ Until this point I did it exactly this way but I don't get the next steps: $$\frac{\theta}{1-\theta^2/2} \approx \theta (1+\theta^2//2) \approx \theta $$
What has been done here? How does the minus sign change to a plus and what does the dubble-slash mean?
I don't know exactly what the double slash here means but this is simply a regular expansion of the kind
$1/(1-x) = 1 + x + x^2 + ... $
In this case you have $x=\theta^2 /2$