Source: Challenge and Thrill of Pre-College Mathematics, Page 201, Question 18:
"Let $$p(x)=ax^2+bx+c$$ be such that $p(x)$ takes real values on real values of x, and non-real values on non-real values of $x$. Is it true that $a=0$ ? If yes, then prove the same."
My attempt: Consider $x=y+zi$, a complex number. We can make cases on $a=0, a≠0$ and prove that $a≠0$ doesn't work.
$a=0$ :- $p(x)=a(y^2-z^2+2yzi)+b(y+zi)+c$, and likewise for $a≠0$.
This is only a rough idea I have, but it doesn't help much when I tried to actually solve the question. Could anyone help me elaborate, or provide comments on what I have done so far?
$p(0),p(1)+p(-1),p(1)-p(-1)$ are all real, giving $a,b,c\in\Bbb R$. This implies that $\forall x\in\Bbb R,p(x)\in\Bbb R$.
For $z\ne0$, we require the imaginary part of $p(y+iz)$ to be non-zero. Thus$$z(2ay+b)\ne0\implies2ay+b\ne0\forall y\in\Bbb R$$If $a\ne0$, then for $y=-b/2a\in\Bbb R,2ay+b$ will be zero. Thus $a=0,b\ne0$.