We know that $|a|<b$ implies $-b<a<b$. Would that still hold if $-|a|<b$? That is, would that imply $-b<-a<b$? Thanks
2026-04-02 23:30:48.1775172648
question about absolute value inequalities
36 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
1) If $b\ge0$ - each $a\neq 0$ is a solution to $-|a|<b$, while $|a|<b$ has a solution $a\in (-b,b)$
2)If $b<0$ then $-|a|<b\Leftrightarrow |a|>-b>0\Leftrightarrow a>-b \,\,\text{or}\,\, a<b$ and becasue $-b>b$ this is $a\in (-\infty,b) \cup (-b,\infty)$ which is not the same as the solution to $|a|<b$ (no real $a$ satisfies it).