Suppose $f$ and $g$ are two functions can be composed. If $f$ is continuous and bounded variation and $g$ is bounded variation, is that true $f\circ g$ is bounded variation?
As we know, if $f$ is Lipschitz, the statement is true, but I don't know if it is true for the above situation.
2026-03-26 17:30:35.1774546235
Question about composition of bounded variation functions
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