How to compute $$\lim_{n \to \infty}\int_0^{\infty}\Big(1+\frac{x}{n}\Big)^{-n}\sin\Big(\frac{x}{n}\Big) dx$$
I want to use the Dominated Convergence Theorem. so it becomes $$\int_0^{\infty}\lim_{n\to \infty}\Big(1+\frac{x}{n}\Big)^{\frac{n}{x}(-x)}\sin\Big(\frac{x}{n}\Big) dx=\int_0^{\infty}e^{-x}\times 0 dx=0$$
I have trouble finding the dominating term, which is essential for me to apply dominated convergence theorem.
Could anyone help me with this? Thanks!
By the Bernoulli inequality we have: $$ \left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^{-n}\leq e^{-x}\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)\tag{1}$$ and: $$\begin{eqnarray*} \int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x}\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)\sin\frac{x}{n}\,dx &=& n \int_{0}^{+\infty}(1+x)\,\sin(x)\, e^{-nx}\,dx\\ &\leq& n\int_{0}^{+\infty}(1+x)\,e^{-nx}\,dx\\&=&1+\frac{1}{n}\tag{2}\end{eqnarray*} $$ So the dominated convergence theorem applies. In fact, $$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}(1+x)\,\sin(x)\,e^{-nx}\,dx = \left(\frac{n+1}{n^2+1}\right)^2\leq\frac{1}{(n-1)^2}\tag{3}$$ so we don't even need the dominated convergence theorem to prove that the limit is zero.