The problem I am having trouble with is finding the Laurent series for
$f(z)=\frac{1}{z^2\sinh z}$ $0<|z|< \pi$
The example I am looking at says
$\frac{1}{z^2\sinh z}=\frac{1}{z^2(z+\frac{z^3}{3!}+\frac{z^5}{5!}+\dots)}$
and then says$ \frac{1}{z^2\sinh z}=\frac{1}{z^3(1+\frac{z^2}{3!}+\frac{z^4}{5!}+\dots)}$
Then they perform division to find the Laurent series expansion for $f(z),0<|z|<\pi$
My question is why they had to divide the series $\sinh z$ in the denominator by $z$? Wouldn't the answer for the Laurent series expansion be the same if we performed the division without dividing the denominator by $z$? This seems like a needless step but I think for some reason it has to be done. Can someone explain why this step is necessary?
I think the reason they divide by z in the denominator is to get a function free of zeros and poles and one that is entire and so we can replace it with a taylor series. So you can get
$f(z) = \frac{1}{z^3}\sum_{k= 0}^{\infty} a_k z^k = \sum_{k= -3}^{\infty} a_k z^k $