I stumbled across this :
Proof of Hadamard - de la Vallée Poussin's Theorem: First recall a basic fact: $$\lim\limits_{z\rightarrow a} \frac{(z-a)f'(z)}{f(z)}=\left\{\begin{matrix} -m, & \text{if } z=a \text{ is a pole of order } m\geq1 \text{ of } f(z)\\ m & \text{if } z=a \text{ is a zero of multiplicity } m\geq1 \text{ of } f(z)\\ 0 & \text{if } f(z) \text{ is analytic at } z=a \text{ and } f(a)\ne0 \end{matrix}\right.$$
they say it's a basic fact, but I am not sure where it comes from. Thanks for any justification.