The Fourier series transform of a function $f(x)$ is given by $$ \mathcal{F} [f(x)] = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) e^{-i k x} dx $$
Apparently, we also have $$ \mathcal{F} [f(ax)] = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(ax) e^{-i k x} dx $$ However, I am unsure of why this would not be expressed as $$ \mathcal{F} [f(ax)] = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(ax) e^{-i k a x} dx $$
Can anyone please explain to me why this is?
Just call $g(x) = f(ax)$, then you have
$$ \mathcal{F} [g(x)] = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x) e^{-i k x} dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(a x) e^{-i k x} dx = \mathcal{F} [f(ax)] $$