I'm trying to study about Whitney's embedding theorem (the case for $2k+1$). Studying the proof of the theorem: http://staff.ustc.edu.cn/~wangzuoq/Courses/18F-Manifolds/Notes/Lec09.pdf I encountered a few things I'm not sure about.
At the end of the third page, it's stated that the image of the map $\alpha:M\times M\setminus \Delta\rightarrow\Bbb{RP}^{K-1}$ $($where $\Delta=\{(p,p):p\in M\})$ is of measure zero following Sard's theorem (because $M\times M$ is an open submanifold of dimension $2k<K-1$), but Sard's theorem speaks about critical points, so why does it imply that? Same question goes about the map $\beta$ mentioned right after it.
The Sard's theorem says that
If $\dim M < \dim N$, then $df_p $ is not surjective for all $p\in M$ and thus $X =M$. Hence the image $f(M)$ is of measure zero, according to Sard's theorem.
Remark the statement "If $\dim M < \dim N$, then $f(M)$ is of measure zero in $N$" can be proved fairly easily without the use of Sard's theorem.