I evaluated the integral $$ \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \log(e^{ix})dx, $$ in Wolfram Alpha and the result was $0$. But if I do it analytically I get $$ \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \log(e^{ix})dx = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} ix \ dx = i 2 \pi. $$
So why does Wolfram Alpha say that the integral is $0$?
Wolfram Alpha computes Log function which returns the principal value of $\log(r e^{i\theta}) = \log(r) + \phi$, where $\phi \in (-\pi,\pi]$ is the principal argument (for example, if $\theta = 3\pi/2$ then $\phi=-\pi/2$). Basically, you are evaluating $$\frac{i}{2\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} x dx.$$