In Spivak's book Calculus on Manifolds, he uses some notation that I'm not entirely sure of. On pg 20 when discussing the derivative of a function $p:R^2 \rightarrow R$ and $p(x,y) = x \cdot y$, he writes
$$ Dp(a,b)(x,y) = bx + ay $$
and concludes that $p'(a,b) = (b,a)$.
This is where I am a little confused. At one point, he states that $Dp(a,b)$ represents the derivative of $p$ at the point $(a,b)$ (pg 16). He goes on to say that it's common to represent the derivative in this case as the Jacobian, which would be a $1x2$ matrix in this case, as indicated by $p'(a,b) = (b,a)$ (I mean, it's not exactly a matrix, but the point is there). However, when defining $Dp(a,b)(x,y)$, what returns is a scalar value. So I'm not sure how to interpret this.
In exercise 2-12 (pg 23), he asks us to show for a bilinear function $f:R^n \times R^m \rightarrow R^p$ that $Df(a,b)(x,y) = f(a,y) + f(x,b)$. Well, now here, the derivative is in $R^p$, so clearly not a scalar. How am I supposed to interpret this? If it is at the point $(a,b)$, then why are both $x$ and $y$ present on the right hand side? What is being expressed in this case?
$\newcommand{\Dif}{\mathrm D}$Think of $\Dif p$ as a mapping from $\mathbb R^2$ to the space of linear maps $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb R^2,\mathbb R)$, so when you evaluate it at $(a,b)$, the result is a linear map $\Dif p(a,b) \in \operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb R^2,\mathbb R)$. Evaluating this linear map at $(x,y)$ gives a scalar $\Dif p(a,b)(x,y) \in \mathbb R$.