Suppose that $(x_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence with $\lim_{n \to \infty} x_n = x \in \mathbb{R}$.
I want to show that $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( 1 + \frac{x_n}{n} \right)^n = \text{e}^x. $$
My attempt: We have that $$ \text{e}^x = \lim_{m \to \infty} \left( 1 + \frac{x}{m} \right)^m = \lim_{m \to \infty} \left( 1 + \frac{\lim_{n \to \infty }x_n}{m} \right)^m = \lim_{m \to \infty}\lim_{n \to \infty } \left( 1 + \frac{x_n}{m} \right)^m. $$ Now I am not sure if (or why) it is allowed to replace the limits $m,n \to \infty$ by one limit $n \to \infty$.
In case $\ln$ can be used, recall that $\ln(1+u)/u \to 1$ as $u\to 0.$ (This follows from the definition of the derivative of $\ln u$ at $u=1.$) We have
$$\ln(1+x_n/n)^n = n\ln(1+x_n/n) = x_n[\ln(1+x_n/n)]/(x_n/n)] \to x\cdot 1 = x.$$
Now exponentiate the above and use the fact that $e^x$ is continuous to see the desired limit is $e^x.$