The well-ordering theorem states that every set can be well-ordered. That is, there is a total order on the set in which every non-empty subset has a least element. I was wondering whether it's also true that for every set you can define a total order such that for every non-empty subset there is a greatest element and would that be equivalent to the well ordering theorem?
Thanks!
Yes, of course. Just reverse the order given by the well-ordering theorem.