I'm asked to find the eigenvalues and bases of the eigenbases for this 3x3 matrix.
$$\begin{pmatrix} 1 &0 & -2\\ 0 &0 & 0 \\ -2 &0 & 4\end{pmatrix}$$
I got eigenvalues of $0 , 0$ and $5$. Now assuming I choose the free variable $Z = 1$, I should get:
Eigenvalue: 0 ----> $V = (2, 0 , 1)$ Eigenvalue: 5 ----> $V = (-1, 0, 2)$
But apparently their is one more eigenbase and thats:
Eigenvalue: 0 -----> $V= (0 ,1, 0)$
Where did this one come from, why are their 2 eigenbases for the eigenvalue of 0. Aren't they meant to me the same answer?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Don't do it by "choosing free variables", at least not if you are just learning the subject - it's an almost certain way to miss out on parts of the solution. (Though it is good and quick once you definitely know what you are doing.)
Instead solve $A-\lambda I=0$ by row-reduction. In this case $A$ is your given matrix, $\lambda$ is zero and the echelon form is $$\pmatrix{1&0&-2\cr0&0&0\cr0&0&0\cr}\ .$$ You have to substitute parameters for the non-leading (non-pivot) columns, which are columns 2 and 3. So $$x_3=t\ ,\quad x_2=s\ ,\quad x_1=2t\ .$$ The eigenvectors are $$\pmatrix{2t\cr s\cr t\cr}=t\pmatrix{2\cr0\cr1\cr}+s\pmatrix{0\cr1\cr0\cr}\ ,$$ and you can see two independent eigenvectors.