I'm looking over solutions from past exams. For this problem, the solution states “By inspection, we see that $2$ is an eigenvalue”. Given arbitrary $3\times3$ matrix below$$\begin{bmatrix}2&a&b \\0&c&d\\0&e&f\end{bmatrix}$$
How is it obvious that $2$ is an eigenvalue? other constants are arbitrary so I can't assume it's an upper triangular matrix.
It is obvious since, if $M$ is your matrix, then$$M.(1,0,0)=(2,0,0)=2(1,0,0).$$