I'm reviewing for the Math GRE Subject test and came across this question in the excellent UCLA notes.
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{\sin^2 x}\right).$$
If one attacks this with naive applications of L'Hospital after combining fractions, it quickly gets out of hand. The suggested solution involves factoring it as
$$\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{\sin^2 x} = \frac{\sin^2 x - x^2}{x^2\sin^2 x} = \left(\frac{x^2}{\sin^2 x}\right)\left(\frac{\sin x + x}{x}\right)\left(\frac{\sin x - x}{x^{3}}\right),$$
where indeed each factor has a real positive limit. I am wondering: What intuition or thought process might lead me to this particular factorization? Such a factorization seems non-obvious to me as it requires the introduction of another factor of $x^2$ into the numerator.
Edit: Thanks to everyone's clear responses, I now understand:
Taylor expansions of trig functions are immensely powerful in evaluating limits, in this case turning the problem into a limit of a rational function.
If a factor of a limit exists and is nonzero, it can be factored out without affecting convergence of the product. Formally, suppose $\lim f(x)$ exists and $g(x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$. Then if $\lim g(x)$ exists in $\mathbb{R}\backslash\{0\}$, $\lim f(x)/g(x)$ exists also. That is to say, one can be "opportunistic" about simplifying ones limits if a factor with a real nonzero limit is discovered.
Since$$\sin(x)=x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-\cdots,$$you know that$$\sin(x)+x=2x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-\cdots$$and that$$\sin(x)-x=-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-\cdots.$$Therefore both limits$$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(x)+x}x\text{ and }\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(x)-x}{x^3}$$exist; they are equal to $2$ and to $-\frac16$ respectively. This explains why that decomposition is used.