Let $X$ be a space and $L$ be a subspace of $X$ that is contractible. Then is $X/L$ homotopy-equivalent to $X$ itself? it doesn't seem trivial to me at al...If so, how to show it rigorously? Could anyone help me?
2026-05-05 20:02:40.1778011360
quotient by contractible space and homotopy equivalent?
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